While 'playing' with the multiplicative group of integers mod $n$, I noticed that $n\mid \phi(a^n-1)$. The proof is straightforward:
- $a \in \left ( \mathbb{Z}/(a^n-1)\mathbb{Z} \right )^\times$ because $a \equiv 0 \pmod{p} \Leftrightarrow a^n-1 \equiv -1 \pmod{p}$ for a prime $p$, and hence $\gcd(a,a^n-1)=1$
- $\left | a \right |=n $ because $ a^n = (a^n-1)+1 \equiv 1 \pmod{a^n-1} $ and if $ 1 \leq k \leq n-1 $ we have $ a<a^k<a^n-1 \Rightarrow a^k\not\equiv 1 \pmod{a^n-1} $ so that $n $ is the smallest positive power for which $a^k \equiv 1$
- Finally, by Lagrange's theorem, we get: $\left| a \right| \mid \left|\left ( \mathbb{Z}/(a^n-1)\mathbb{Z} \right )^\times\right| \Rightarrow n\mid\phi(a^n-1)$
I assumed that such a simple looking identity had to have a simple direct number theoretic explanation, and with my limited knowledge of number theory, I tried to tackle the problem but without success.
I still have a feeling that there is a simple explanation and that I'm just missing the elephant in the room that easily illuminates this fact.
Off Topic: I had difficulty formatting the 'proof' because I am new to $\LaTeX$ and I don't know how things should really be done on this website, so feel free to edit anything to make it "more right", I will certainly appreciate it.