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While trying to find the list of axioms of ZF on the Web and in literature I noticed that the lists I had found varied quite a bit. Some included the axiom of empty set, while others didn't.

That is perfectly understandable - the statement of the axiom is provable from the axiom schema of specification. Some lists also contained the axiom of pairing, while others didn't - I've heard here on MSE that the statement of this axiom is also provable.

I was wondering: are there other axioms of ZF statements of which are also provable that I don't know of? What is the true commonly accepted list of ZF axioms which doesn't contain any redundant axioms included just for emphasis?

Mark Fantini
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user132181
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    Does it matter what axioms you have? It matters what you can prove from them. And if you show that you can prove one list from the other and vice versa, then it doesn't matter anymore. For brevity, I prefer to think of ZF as the following: Extensionality, power set, union, regularity, replacement schema, infinity, choice. [Note that the replacement schema has two versions, one requires that we add the specification axiom as well; the other proves specification.] – Asaf Karagila Sep 01 '14 at 16:19
  • @AsafKaragila it's always nice to reduce the number of employed axioms, even though two different lists of axioms may be equivalent. And I also think it was you who told me that the axiom of pairing was not needed :-) – user132181 Sep 01 '14 at 16:22
  • Well, pairing is provable from replacement + power set + empty set; and empty set is provable from a myriad of axioms (infinity, for example). – Asaf Karagila Sep 01 '14 at 16:27
  • Of course in my first comment, choice is a explicit addition to $\sf ZF$. :-) – Asaf Karagila Sep 01 '14 at 16:37
  • @AsafKaragila I thought that asking the question in terms of ZFC instead of ZF would be... redundant (pun intended) :-D – user132181 Sep 01 '14 at 16:43
  • Well, one could argue that the axiomatization should be ZF+Zorn's lemma; or ZF+Hausdorff's maximality principle; or ZF+Every vector space has a basis; or so on and so forth. – Asaf Karagila Sep 01 '14 at 16:51
  • There's also the issue that many of the instances of, say, the Comprehension schema, can be proved from other instances. – Nate Eldredge Sep 01 '14 at 21:37

1 Answers1

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Here is my preferred list of axioms, they are written in the language of $\in$, and $=$ is a logical symbol.

  1. Extensionality. $\forall x\forall y(x=y\leftrightarrow\forall z(z\in x\leftrightarrow z\in y))$. Two sets are equal if and only if they have the same elements.
  2. Union. $\forall x\exists y\forall u(u\in y\leftrightarrow\exists v(v\in x\land u\in v))$. If $x$ is a set, then $\bigcup x$ is a set.
  3. Regularity. $\forall x(\exists y(y\in x)\rightarrow\exists y(y\in x\land\forall z(z\in x\rightarrow z\notin y)))$. The $\in$ relation is well-founded.
  4. Power set. $\forall x\exists y\forall z(z\in y\leftrightarrow\forall u(u\in z\rightarrow u\in x))$. If $x$ is a set, then $\mathcal P(x)$ is a set.
  5. Replacement schema. If $\varphi(x,y,p_1,\ldots,p_n)$ is a formula in the language of set theory, then: $$\forall p_1\ldots\forall p_n\\ \forall u(\forall x(x\in u\rightarrow(\exists y\varphi(x,y,p_1,\ldots,p_n)\rightarrow\exists y(\varphi(x,y,p_1,\ldots,p_n)\land\forall z(\varphi(x,z,p_1,\ldots,p_n)\rightarrow z=y)))\rightarrow\exists v\forall y(y\in v\leftrightarrow\exists x(x\in u\land\varphi(x,y,p_1,\ldots,p_n))).$$ For every fixed parameters, $p_1,\ldots,p_n$, and for every set $u$, if for every $x\in u$ there is at most one $y$ such that $\varphi(x,y,p_1,\ldots,p_n)$, namely the formula, with the fixed parameters, define a partial function on $u$, then there is some $v$ which is exactly the range of this function.
  6. Infinity. $$\exists x(\exists y(y\in x\land\forall z(z\notin y))\land\forall u(u\in x\rightarrow\exists v(v\in x\land\forall w(w\in v\leftrightarrow w\in u\lor w=u))))\text{.}$$ There exist a set $x$ which has the empty set as an element, and whenever $y\in x$, then $y\cup\{y\}\in x$ as well.

I wrote those purely in the language of $\in$, as you can see, to avoid any claims that I need to use $\subseteq$ or $\mathcal P$ or $\bigcup$. I will now allow myself these addition to the language.

From these axioms we can easily:

  1. Prove there is an empty set: it is the element of the set guaranteed to exist in the infinity axiom.
  2. Prove the pairing axiom: By the power set axiom, $\mathcal P(\varnothing)$ exists, and its power set $\{\varnothing,\{\varnothing\}\}$ exists too. Now consider the formula $\varphi(x,y,a,b,c,d)$ whose content is $$(x=a\land y=c)\lor(x=b\land y=d).$$ Given two sets, $u,v$ consider the replacement axiom for $\varphi$ with the parameters: $\varphi(x,y,\varnothing,\mathcal P(\varnothing),u,v)$, and the domain $\mathcal{P(P(\varnothing))}$. Then there is a set who is the range of the function $\varphi$ defines here, which is exactly $\{u,v\}$.
  3. Specification schema: Suppose that $\varphi(x,p_1,\ldots,p_n)$ is a formula in the language of set theory, and $A$ is a set which exists. Define $\psi(x,y,p_1,\ldots,p_n)$ to be $\varphi(x,p_1,\ldots,p_n)\land x=y$. Easily we can prove that given any element of $A$ there is at most one element satisfying $\psi(x,y,p_1,\ldots,p_n)$ (with the fixed parameters). And therefore the range of the function defined is $\{x\in A\mid\varphi(x,p_1,\ldots,p_n)\}$ as wanted.

And so on and so forth. The choice of axiomatization usually doesn't matter. But it does matter when one has to verify the axioms by hand for one reason or another, then it might be fortuitous to add explicit axioms or it might be better to keep it minimal. Depending on the situation.

It is also an important question what axioms you keep, or add, when you consider weakening of $\sf ZF$. You can remove replacement, but add specification, or perhaps specification for a particular class of formulas; or you can remove extensionality and then the choice whether to use Replacement or Collection schemas really prove a big different; and so on.

dankness
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Asaf Karagila
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    I'm extremely grateful for this very detailed answer, thank you very much. – user132181 Sep 01 '14 at 17:39
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    For rule two I think you meant x instead of z – DanielV Sep 01 '14 at 18:01
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    @Daniel: Thanks for noticing! – Asaf Karagila Sep 01 '14 at 20:44
  • In replacement, you presumably intended to say something about $y=z$ at the end of the second line. Also, there's an alternative proof of pairing using infinity and replacement. – Andreas Blass Sep 01 '14 at 23:30
  • @Andreas: D'oh, of course. – Asaf Karagila Sep 02 '14 at 04:12
  • Great answer! (not surprisingly, by the way). I have a related question, but I don't want to ask it in a new tread: what is the definition of "set equality"? (A professor once told me that two sets are equal by definition if both of them belong to exactly the same sets; It is clear to me that extensionality provides a sufficient condition, not a definition, for set equality). Also, can you provide the statement of the Specification axiom? thanks. – Matemáticos Chibchas Sep 03 '14 at 01:09
  • @MatemáticosChibchas: If two sets are equal, then they satisfy the same formulas, for any choice of parameters. So in particular they have the same elements. Extensionality is indeed the other direction of the equivalence. Specification schema is this, if $\varphi(x,p_1,\ldots,p_n)$ is a formula, then $\forall p_1\ldots\forall p_n\forall u\exists v\forall y(y\in v\leftrightarrow y\in u\land\varphi(y,p_1,\ldots,p_n)$. – Asaf Karagila Sep 03 '14 at 05:35
  • @AsafKaragila You forgot a ) at the end... I caught you!!! just kidding. Hmmm, that professor was wrong then... or not? I became intrigued: can two different sets (that is, exactly one of them satisfying a certain formula) belong to precisely the same sets? – Matemáticos Chibchas Sep 04 '14 at 04:08
  • @MatemáticosChibchas: Singletons. – Asaf Karagila Sep 04 '14 at 07:31
  • @AsafKaragila Sorry to bother you but I didn't understand your answer... alas I still don't know what is the definition of set equality: is just a "not defined notion" satisfying the conditions for a equivalence relation? – Matemáticos Chibchas Sep 06 '14 at 03:09
  • @MatemáticosChibchas: If two sets are different can one be in the singleton containing only the other? – Asaf Karagila Sep 06 '14 at 05:42
  • Shouldn't the last part of Infinity be something like $\forall w(w\in v\leftrightarrow(u\in w \wedge \forall p(p\in w \to p=u))\vee w=u)$ instead of what is written? – Guest Sep 15 '15 at 14:02
  • @Guest: There was a typo there, yes. Although not quite what you suggest. I'm afraid that I'm not entirely sure what is the semantic content of your statement. Thanks for noticing! – Asaf Karagila Sep 15 '15 at 18:59
  • @MatemáticosChibchas https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Axiom_of_extensionality#In_predicate_logic_without_equality seems to agree. – user76284 Mar 09 '20 at 23:34
  • @Guest maybe you had the same confusion I did. I was expecting $S(v) = {u, {u}}$ but in fact $S(u) = u \cup {u}$ (which is different). The former is the ordered pair $(u, {u})$ which is maybe what led to the confusion. – Jagerber48 Jul 16 '22 at 15:41