Why $\displaystyle\int_{n-1}^{n}[t]f'(t)dt=\int_{n-1}^{n}(n-1)f'(t)dt$? IMO, since $t\leq n$, $[t]$ could be $n$. How to explain this? Thanks in advance!
This is used in the proof of Euler's summation formula (Theorem 3.1) in Apostol's Introduction to Analytic Number Theory, page 54.