Today I have seemingly simple question and maybe someone knows the answer without getting into messy calculations.
So we have $n$ vectors $v_1,\dots,v_n\in\mathbb{R}^n$ and let us assume for the moment that they form a basis. Furthermore we look at all vectors which are orthogonal to the hyperplane spanned by these vectors, so $$\mathrm{Ker}\begin{pmatrix}v_1-v_n\\\vdots \\ v_{n-1}-v_n\end{pmatrix}.$$
My question: Does the following equation hold for some $N\neq 0$ in the above kernel? $$\sum_{i=1}^{n}\det\begin{pmatrix}v_1 \\ \vdots \\ v_{i-1} \\ v \\ v_{i+1} \\ \vdots \\ v_n\end{pmatrix} =\langle N,v\rangle,\qquad\forall\,v\in\mathbb{R}^n $$
It's quite easy to see in $\mathbb{R}^2$, but as I said: I'm looking for a proof without messy calculations.
Thank you!
Richard