I'm trying to understand the following. I'll denote by $X$ the set of all ordinals that are at most $\omega_1$, the first uncountable ordinal. To avoid confusion, they can be equal to $\omega_1$ as well. Equip $X$ with the order topology.
Then how come $\omega_1$ is an accumulation point of $X\setminus\{\omega_1\}$, but there is no sequence in $X\setminus\{\omega_1\}$ that converges to $\omega_1$?