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The plausible looking "identity"

$$\sin(\frac{\pi}{51})+\cos(\frac{\pi}{74})=\frac{3}{2\sqrt 2}$$

is not true, but it is close indeed:

$$LHS=1.0606\color{blue}{598...}$$ $$RHS=1.0606\color{red}{601...}$$

In fact the difference, on the order of $10^{-7}$, is small enough to fool some cheap calculators.

Is there any way to disprove this identity without relying on a (good) calculator?

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    BTW, in case anyone wonders where this comes from: I found the "identity" using brute force search of formulae of the form $(\sin(\pi / n)+\cos(\pi / m))^2$, then looking at the continued fraction expansion of the numerical evaluation of these and searching for one that has a huge term somewhere early on to get a nice small fraction. So yes, this is a deliberately constructed example to investigate the question of how one can check such claimed identities without needing a CAS or calculator. –  Aug 24 '14 at 08:44
  • One rather cumbersome way would be to approximate by hand using Taylor series and majoration of the rest. Since the angles are quite small, the series converge quickly. And computing $\sqrt{2}$ by hand is easy (there is an algorithm resembling a bit the division one). But it's cheating, if you're looking for a more direct proof. – Jean-Claude Arbaut Aug 24 '14 at 08:44
  • @Jean-ClaudeArbaut: This would be especially difficult since you would also have to put in numerical estimates for the fractions of $\pi$ in every term, which would be a daunting computation to do by hand indeed. –  Aug 24 '14 at 08:47
  • I have computed $\pi$ to 20 digits by hand, once. Interesting, and not so long (less than 10 hours I think, using Machin's formula). But of course, if you include this computation in the above task, then computing $\pi$ is the most cumbersome. – Jean-Claude Arbaut Aug 24 '14 at 08:48
  • To me, the problem is that using Taylor series for the sine an cosine will also require the computation of a lot of powers of $\pi$ and this does not look funny without a "good" calculator. – Claude Leibovici Aug 24 '14 at 12:50

2 Answers2

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First note that $[\mathbb{Q}(\sin\tfrac{\pi}{51}):\mathbb{Q}]=32$ so $[\mathbb{Q}(\sin\tfrac{\pi}{51}, \sqrt{2}):\mathbb{Q}]\in\{32,64\}.$ Now $[\mathbb{Q}(\cos\tfrac{\pi}{74}):\mathbb{Q}]=36$ and since $36\not\mid 64$ we conclude that $\cos\tfrac{\pi}{74}\not\in\mathbb{Q}(\sin\tfrac{\pi}{51}, \sqrt{2})$ and in particular $\cos\tfrac{\pi}{74}\neq \frac{3}{2\sqrt{2}}-\sin\tfrac{\pi}{51}$.

WimC
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Well, algebraic number theory handles it without difficulty, but my argument may seem purely mumbojumbo if you’re not familiar with that subject.

For a positive integer $n$, let $\zeta_n$ be a primitive $n$-th root of unity, such as $\cos(2\pi/n)+i\sin(2\pi/n)$. We have $\sin(\pi/51)=\frac1{2i}(\zeta_{102}-\zeta_{102}^{-1})$, and we expect that this will be an irrationality of degree $64=2\phi(3)\phi(17)$ over the rationals $\mathbb Q$. In the same way, $\cos(\pi/74)=\frac12(\zeta_{148}+\zeta_{148}^{-1})$. Here the degree over $\mathbb Q$ is equal to $36=\frac12\phi(4)\phi(37)$. The first irrationality involves ramification at $3$ and $17$, the second at $2$ and $37$. The sum must involve ramification at all of these, which your expression in $\sqrt2$ does not.

EDIT: At the prompting of both @pew and @WimC, I have developed a more transparent explanation of why the two sides of the relation are unequal. It still depends on ramification theory, but in a way that most people are willing to accept. I’ll point out where.

I need to establish some facts about primitive roots of unity and the minimal $\mathbb Q$-polynomials they satisfy. First, in $\mathbb C$, any finite multiplicative subgroup $C$ is cyclic. If of order $N$, then $C$ has $\phi(N)$ generators, where $\phi$ is the “totient” function that counts the number of positive integers up to $N$ that are relatively prime to $N$. So, $\phi(1)=\phi(2)=1$, and more generally for a prime $p$, $\phi(p^k)=p^k-p^{k-1}$. One sees, by counting which roots of unity generate which cyclic subgroups, that $N=\sum_{d|N}\phi(d)$, and from the Möbius Inversion Formula, $$ \Phi(N)=\sum_{d|N}\mu(d)\frac Nd\,. $$ In the same way, if we take the polynomial $\Phi_N(X)$ (the $N$-th cyclotomic polynomial) whose roots are the primitive $N$-th roots of unity, we get \begin{align} X^n-1&=\prod_{d|N}\Phi_d(X)\\ \Phi_N(X)&=\prod_{d|N}(X^{N/d}-1)^{\mu(d)}\,, \end{align} which shows that $\Phi_N(X)$ is not only a polynomial (which it is from the definition), but has $\mathbb Z$-coefficients. And you see by the parallelism of the $\phi(N)$ with $\Phi_N(X)$ that $\deg(\Phi_N)=\phi(N)$.

Now it’s easy, by a trick using the Eisenstein Criterion, to show that when $N$ is a prime power, $\Phi_N$ is $\mathbb Q$-irreducible. It requires ramification theory, as far as I know, to show that all the cyclotomic polynomials are $\mathbb Q$-irreducible.

Next I want to point out that if we adjoin a primitive $n$-th root of unity, say $\zeta_n$, to $\mathbb Q$, we get a field of degree $\phi(n)$ over $\mathbb Q$: its irreducible polynomial is $\Phi_n$. And then I argue that if $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime (so that $\phi(mn)=\phi(m)\phi(n)$), then if we call $K=\mathbb Q(\zeta_m,\zeta_n)$, it turns out that $K$ is also equal to $\mathbb Q(\zeta_{mn})$. Certainly a field containing the $m$-th roots and the $n$-th roots of unity contains the $mn$-th roots (remember that $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime), but might at first glance be bigger, giving the inequality $[K\colon\mathbb Q]\ge\phi(mn)=\phi(m)\phi(n)$. But you get the $n$-th roots of unity by adjoining $\zeta_n$ to $\mathbb Q(\zeta_m)$, so a root of the polynomial $\Phi_n$, which might not be irreducible over the larger field, but at least the total degree of this doubly-adjoined field over $\mathbb Q(\zeta_m)$ is less than or equal to $\phi(n)$. But the $\phi$’s multiply, showing that $$ [K\colon\mathbb Q]=[K\colon\mathbb Q(\zeta_m)]\cdot\phi(m)\le\phi(n)\phi(m)\,. $$ the two degrees are equal, so the two fields are equal.

Now let’s go back to the original problem: we’re looking at the quantity $$ \frac1{2i}(\zeta_{102}-\zeta_{102}^{-1}) + \frac12(\zeta{148}+\zeta_{148}^{-1})\,. $$ Of course $i=\zeta_4$, and you see that everything is taking place in the field $L=\mathbb Q(\zeta_{4\cdot3\cdot17\cdot37})$. And now I claim that this field does not contain the eighth roots of unity. Its degree over $\mathbb Q$ is $\phi(4)\phi(3)\phi(17)\phi(37)$, but with the eighth roots of unity there, the total degree would be the same product but with $\phi(4)=2$ replaced by $\phi(8)=4$. So the eighth roots of unity are not in $L$.

It follows that $\sqrt2\notin L$, because $\zeta_8=(1+i)/\sqrt2$. Since $\sqrt2$ is not in the (presumably) larger field $L$, it’s not in the field generated by $\sin(\pi/51)$ and $\cos(\pi/74)$. And that’s it.

Lubin
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  • $\cos(\pi/74)$ has degree $36$ over $\mathbb{Q}$. – WimC Aug 24 '14 at 18:59
  • I never was so good at that kind of arithmetic, @WimC. Thanks! – Lubin Aug 24 '14 at 19:02
  • Will I ever get this right? Sorry! – Lubin Aug 25 '14 at 03:58
  • This is exactly the type of answer I was hoping for, but admittedly I have difficulties understanding it. It is clear that merely looking at the degree of LHS parts separately is not sufficient, as for an algebraic number $\alpha$ of any degree, $\alpha + (-\alpha) = 0$ is rational, so the magic seems to lie in the "ramification" argument. It's there I'm struggling since I'm not familiar with that concept at all. From your description, it sounds like ramification points are a preserved quantity under summation, which would be very interesting indeed. Where can I learn more? –  Aug 25 '14 at 06:04
  • I’m looking for a more direct way of understanding the problem. Maybe by the end of the day today (140825) – Lubin Aug 25 '14 at 12:13
  • The idea is that in addition to the field extension degree there’s something called the ramification index (or degree), locally at each prime of the extended field. It’s traditionally called $e$, and the property of the ram. index is that it’s multiplicative. Since this degree (above $17$ and above $37$) is $1$ for the extension $\mathbb Q(\sqrt2)\supset\mathbb Q$, the problems arise. – Lubin Aug 25 '14 at 12:18
  • One can prove the irreducibility of the cyclotomic polynomials without making recourse to ramification, as in Lang' Algebra (Thenargument goes back to Dirichlet, iirc) – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Aug 25 '14 at 17:29
  • @MarianoSuárez-Alvarez, thanks for that. I’ll look it up. – Lubin Aug 25 '14 at 17:36
  • Thank you for the additional details, they made me want to search for my old Galois theory textbooks and leaf around a little. Granted, the ramification part is still a black box for me, but the overall mechanism of the proof is clearer now. –  Aug 26 '14 at 18:07