1) Is there a reason why the binomial expansion of $(a+x)^n$ is the same as a Taylor series approximation of $(a+x)^n$ centered at zero?
2) The binomial expansion of $(a+x)^n$ is
$a^n + na^{n-1}x + \frac{n(n-1)}{2!}a^{n-2}x^2 +$....
If the expansion is written this way, then $n$ can be an integer (positive or negative) or a fraction? If the binomial expansion is written in summation notation using nCr, then n can only be positive because nCr cannot have a negative $n$?
3) For the expansion of $(a+x)^n$ I gave in question 2, does $a$ have to be $a = 1$ with $-1 < x < 1$? What are these restrictions?
Update : An infinite geometric series converges when the common ratio, $x$ in this case, is between -1 and 1. The infinite binomial expansion I wrote in question 2 is a valid expansion of $(a+x)^n$ when $-1 < x < 1$. So if I put $x = 0.5$ into $(a+x)^n$ for a given $n$ and $a$, $(a+0.5)^n$ and the infinite expansion for $x = 0.5$ will give the same answer. If I use $x = 40$, the expansion will diverge and not give the same answer as the original function $(a+40)^n$. Does this mean that the binomial expansion is actually a power series (a geometric series is a special case of a power series)? And does $a$ need to be 1 for the $-1 < x < 1$ to be required? Or is it required regardless of what $a$ is?