Opps.
It seems I misread the question. You can skip the old answer and go straight to the new one.
Let $H$ be the distribution of the probability of getting a head, for each new coin tossed. For simplicity we'll assume an unlimited source of coins and a different one used each toss; so the bias of each coin is independently determined with some probability distribution function; $f_H(p)$.
The usual geometric distribution of $n-1$ tails before the first head is modified to:
$$\Pr(N=n) = \int_0^1 p\;f_H(p) \operatorname{d}p \times \prod_{k=1}^{n-1} \left(1-\int_0^1 p\;f_H(p)\operatorname{d}p\right) $$
Or equivalently
$$\Pr(N=n) = E[H]\left(\prod_{k=1}^{n-1} (1-E[H])\right)$$
And when this is a uniform distribution this becomes :
$f_H(p) = 1\cdot\operatorname{\bf 1}_{[0,1]}(p), E[H]=\frac 12$
$$\therefore \Pr(N=n) = (\frac 12)^n$$
If "the probability of getting a head is however the same for all coins." then you may as well be selecting one coin and using it for all tosses.
So in this case: $$\begin{align}\Pr(N=n) & = \int_0^1 (1-p)^{n-1}\;p\;f_H(p)\operatorname{d}p
\\ & = \int_0^1 q^{n-1}(1-q)\operatorname{d} q
\\ & = \int_0^1 q^{n-1}-q^n\operatorname{d} q
\\ & = \left[\frac {q^n}{n}-\frac{q^{n+1}}{n+1}\right]_{q=0}^{q=1}
\\ & = \frac {1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+1}
\\ & = \frac{1}{n(n+1)}
\end{align}$$