For no other reason other than interest, I'm trying to find the general derivative of $b^x$ without using a definition of $e$ from a different context.
I feel like, chronologically in history, this would have been the first time $e$ would have popped up in the context of calculus.
Every proof of $\frac{db^x}{dx}$ I can find uses the result of $\frac{de^x}{dx}=e^x$. But at the time (and correct me if I'm wrong), $e$ wasn't really popularized. It was (almost) being used in disguise by Napier, only because $(1-10^{-7})^{10^7} \approx e^{-1}$. When Netwon came around, Bernoulli may have been looking to find the value of $\lim_{n\to \infty}(1+1/n)^n$, but I don't see any motivation to consider
$$\frac{d\left(\lim_{n\to \infty}(1+1/n)^n\right)^x}{dx}$$
before the general case $\frac{db^x}{dx}$. I'm sure along the way of finding the derivative of $b^x$, a clear motivation for defining $e$ will pop-up .. but I'd like to find a proof that starts off assuming no prior knowledge of $e$.
If you start from definition, you very quickly arrive at
$$\frac{db^x}{dx} = b^x \lim_{h\to 0}{\frac{b^h-1}{h}}$$
but from here I'm stuck. How to show $\exists c \in \Re$ such that
$$\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{c^x-1}{x}=1$$
to proceed?