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For no other reason other than interest, I'm trying to find the general derivative of $b^x$ without using a definition of $e$ from a different context.

I feel like, chronologically in history, this would have been the first time $e$ would have popped up in the context of calculus.

Every proof of $\frac{db^x}{dx}$ I can find uses the result of $\frac{de^x}{dx}=e^x$. But at the time (and correct me if I'm wrong), $e$ wasn't really popularized. It was (almost) being used in disguise by Napier, only because $(1-10^{-7})^{10^7} \approx e^{-1}$. When Netwon came around, Bernoulli may have been looking to find the value of $\lim_{n\to \infty}(1+1/n)^n$, but I don't see any motivation to consider

$$\frac{d\left(\lim_{n\to \infty}(1+1/n)^n\right)^x}{dx}$$

before the general case $\frac{db^x}{dx}$. I'm sure along the way of finding the derivative of $b^x$, a clear motivation for defining $e$ will pop-up .. but I'd like to find a proof that starts off assuming no prior knowledge of $e$.

If you start from definition, you very quickly arrive at

$$\frac{db^x}{dx} = b^x \lim_{h\to 0}{\frac{b^h-1}{h}}$$

but from here I'm stuck. How to show $\exists c \in \Re$ such that

$$\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{c^x-1}{x}=1$$

to proceed?

2'5 9'2
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    How are you defining $b^x$? – William Stagner Aug 02 '14 at 00:59
  • If you set $\frac{b^h-1}{h}=1$ and solve for $b$ you get the expression for $e$, this is not rigourous but I like to think it could have been how it was done. Also did Euler discover $e$ ? – Rene Schipperus Aug 02 '14 at 01:07
  • @ReneSchipperus Euler coined $e$, but he came like 50 years after Newton. I don't know if can just set that .. I think I need to show that 1) for $\forall b \in \Re$, the limit converges, and 2) that there exists $c$ such that it actually converges to 1 – user167524 Aug 02 '14 at 01:11
  • @user167524 So do you know when $e$ first appeared and with what motivation ? I think my point about the non rigorous argument is that it would give the expression for $e$ and then you could prove that it converged and gave the above limit equal to $1$. Anyway I dont think they worried too much about convergence before Cauchy. – Rene Schipperus Aug 02 '14 at 01:18
  • For lack of imagination, write $b=[b]+{b}$, then expand $b^h=[b]^h\bigg(1+\dfrac{{b}}{[b]}\bigg)^h$ into its binomial series. – Lucian Aug 02 '14 at 01:20
  • @ReneSchipperus good point about Cauchy – user167524 Aug 02 '14 at 01:28
  • There's a mistake in your formula after "I don't see any motivation to consider." The indicated derivative is $0$, since the function being differentiated is the constant $e$. – Cheerful Parsnip Aug 02 '14 at 04:24
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    If you can show that for small $x$ we have $$2^x-1<x<3^x-1$$ then you can convince yourself by a continuity argument that there's a real number $c$, $2<c<3$, such that $\lim_{x\to0}(c^x-1)/x=1$. – Gerry Myerson Aug 02 '14 at 04:52
  • @GerryMyerson: This also follows from the approach I mentioned above. – Lucian Aug 02 '14 at 05:13
  • @Lucian, are you saying you and have come up with different ways to prove the same thing? or are you saying that my suggestion is the same as yours? If the latter, I don't see it. – Gerry Myerson Aug 02 '14 at 05:16
  • It seems more like you are trying to define $e$, since you are looking to prove that there exists a $c$ with $\lim\frac{c^x-1}{x}=1$. If you just want to get to the derivative of $b^x$, why not just define $\ell(b)$ to be $\lim_{h\to0}\frac{b^h-1}{h}$ and have $\frac{d}{dx}b^x=b^x\ell(b)$? Of course you won't be able to express this with more elementary functions, since we know that $\ell$ is $\ln$. – 2'5 9'2 Aug 02 '14 at 05:55
  • One thing is for sure. Investigations like this will make one appreciate the standard definitions of $e$ and $\ln$ more than one appreciates them the first time they see them. – 2'5 9'2 Aug 02 '14 at 06:00
  • @GerryMyerson oo I like that, let me have a go at it and see what I can stir up – user167524 Aug 26 '14 at 17:01
  • Well, we can show $(1 + \frac 1n)^n$ converges as $n\to \infty$. If $\lim (1+ \frac 1n)^n = E$ what is $\lim \frac {E^h - 1}h$? Is that doable? – fleablood Nov 10 '17 at 22:45

3 Answers3

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\begin{align} \frac d {dx} b^x = \lim_{\Delta x\to0} \frac{\Delta b^x}{\Delta x} = \lim_{\Delta x\to 0} \frac{b^{x+\Delta x} - b^x}{\Delta x} = {} & \underbrace{ \lim_{\Delta x\to0} \left( b^x \frac{b^{\Delta x} - 1}{\Delta x} \right) = b^x \lim_{\Delta x\to0} \frac{b^{\Delta x} - 1}{\Delta x} }_{\begin{array}{l} \large\text{This works because $b^x$ is “constant'' in} \\ \large\text{the sense that it doesn't change as $\Delta x$} \\ \large\text{approaches $0.$} \end{array}} \\[15pt] = {} & \big( b^x \cdot \text{constant} \big) \qquad \text{But this “constant''} \\[2pt] & \text{is “constant'' in the sense that is doesn't} \\ & \text{change as $x$ changes.} \end{align}

Now suppose we can show that the "constant" at the end is less than $1$ if $b=2$ and greater than $1$ if $b=4.$ One would then expect that for some number $b$ between $2$ and $4,$ the constant is $1,$ and that number between $2$ and $4$ is $e.$

For $b=2,$ consider the points $(0,b^0) = (0,1)$ and $(1,b^1) = (1,2).$ The slope of the secant line is $1$ and should be more than the slope of the tangent line at $x=0$ since the curve gets steeper as you go to the right.

For $b=4,$ do likewise with $(-1/2,b^{-1/2}) = (-1/2,1/2)$ and $(0,b^0) = (0,1),$ and conclude that $4$ is too big to be $e.$

Finally, writing $b^x= e^{x\log_e b}$ and applying the chain rule, one concludes that the "constant" is $\log_e b.$

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I wish to suggest one.

Recall the Napierian logarithm definition: For all real $y > 0$ we define $$\log y = \lim_{n \to \infty +}n(y^{1/n} - 1)$$.

Let $c > 0$ be a real number. Then $$\log c = \lim_{n \to \infty +}n(c^{1/n} - 1) = \lim_{x \to 0}\frac{1}{x}(c^{x} - 1) = \frac{d}{dx}c^{x} \mid_{x=0}.$$ Choose $c = e$, qed.

Yes
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Using real analysis - which did not exist at the time of Napier - we could talk about the existence of the constant in your $h \to 0$ limit:

$$ \frac{db^x}{dx} = b^x \lim_{h\to 0}{\frac{b^h-1}{h}}$$

Notice that $h$ is a very small number and your equation suggests for some constant $c$ :

$$ b^h \approx 1 + hc$$

What happens when we multiply two of these factors, using what we know about the exponential function?

$$ b^h \cdot b^{h'} \approx (1 + hc)(1+ h'c) = 1 + (h+h')c+o(h^2) \approx b^{h + h'}$$

This is how we get that very small compounded interest rates can be added.


Hmm... we could do it the other way around

$$ a^h \cdot b^h \approx (1 + h c_1)(1 + h c_2) \approx 1 + h(c_1 +c_2) + o (h^2) \approx (ab)^h $$

Eventually $c_1 = \log a$ and $c_2 = \log b$ and we are showing that $c_1 + c_2 = \log (ab)$.

With $0 = \log 1$ - proven by setting $b=0$, this relationship determines the logarithm.


btw have you looked at this example? Intuitive proofs that $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\left(1+\frac xn\right)^n=e^x$

cactus314
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  • little confused. sure, limit of $b^h$ is 1 if b >= 1. But how does this imply the existence of the constant of $b^h-1$/h ? – user167524 Aug 20 '14 at 20:55