In a paper about Zsigmondy's theorem, there is the following statement as a remark, without proof, nor reference:
Let $n, a $ be integers $(\gt1)$ and $q$ a prime divisor of $n=q^{i}.r$, such that $q$ does not divide $r$, let $b=a^{q^{i-1}}$, let $\Phi_n$ be the nth cyclotomic polynomial and $\phi$ the Euler totient function. Then $$\Phi_n(a)\ge\left(\frac{b^q+1}{b+1}\right)^{\phi(r)}$$
In the same paper, a weaker result: $$\Phi_n(a)\gt\left(\frac{b^q-1}{b+1}\right)^{\phi(r)}$$ is easily proved, thanks to a quite simple geometric argument, and used for a nice and quick proof that $$\Phi_n(a)\gt a^{\frac{\phi(n)}{2}}$$
I have tried, but failed, to prove the first inequality: this one seems to me much more difficult. Any help?
Edit: this where I am: for $q$ a prime, $b\gt1$, and $r$ not divisible by $q$ one has to demonstrate that $$\frac{\Phi_r(b^q)}{\Phi_r(b)}\ge\left(\frac{b^q+1}{b+1}\right)^{\phi(r)}$$ because the left side is $\Phi_n(a)$.
Actually, when $r=2$, since $\phi(2)=1$, this inequality is true because it is obviously an equality. Then I think one should try to show that, when $r\gt2$ $$\frac{\Phi_r(x)}{(x+1)^{\phi(r)}}$$ is a growing function of $x$ (from $x\ge1$) ? but i am stuck here.
One could also try to prove that it is decreasing from $1$, as $x$ varies from $0$ to $1$ and use the fact that this function is unchanged when $x$ is changed for $1/x$ (because $x^{\phi(r)}.\Phi_r(1/x)=\Phi_r(x)$). It must tend to $1$ as $x$ grows to infinity (as the ratio of two polynomials with same degree). Should also be minimal at $x=1$.