Here is a collection of facts which may or may not serve as hints:
- Every prime ideal of $R$ is maximal
- The zero ideal is the intersection of all the prime ideals in $R$
- $R \simeq R / (0)$
Edit
As requested, I'll expand this into a more complete answer.
Since $R$ is finite, for any prime ideal $\mathfrak{p}$, $R / \mathfrak{p}$ is a finite integral domain, and thus is a field, and so $\mathfrak{p}$ is maximal. In fact, since every element of $R/\mathfrak{p}$ satisfies $x^3 - x = 0$, $R/\mathfrak{p}$ is a field with at most 3 elements, and so is either $\Bbb{F}_2$ or $\Bbb{F}_3$.
The condition that $x^3 = x$ prevents $R$ from having a nilradical that isn't the zero ideal. Since $R$ is finite, there are only a finite number of prime ideals, say $\mathfrak{p}_1, \dots, \mathfrak{p_n}$. It follows that $$ \prod_{i=1}^n \mathfrak{p}_i = \bigcap_{i=1}^n \mathfrak{p}_i= (0) .$$
Since each $\mathfrak{p}_i$ is maximal, the prime ideals are pairwise comaximal, so the Chinese Remainder Theorem gives $$R \simeq R/(0) \simeq \prod_{i=1}^n R/\mathfrak{p}_i.$$
The comment before shows that the terms in the product are fields of order 2 or 3.