Suppose $\binom{n}{k}=\binom{n'}{k'}$ with $k \geq 2$, $k' \geq 2$, $n \geq 2k$ and $n' \geq 2k'$. Does it follow that $n=n'$ and $k=k'$?
EDIT: Yup, $\binom{16}{2}=\binom{10}{3}=120$.
Now I want to ask if there are infinitely many such pairs, but I should probably ask that in a separate question. Thanks!
EDIT 2: for future reference, yes there are infinitely many such coincidences. See Singmaster's Conjecture.