My textbook asks me to decide whether or not this expression is true:
Given the function $f: X \to Y$ with $B_1 \subseteq Y $. $ f^{-1}(Y $ \ $ B_1) = X $ \ $f^{-1}(B_1) $
I was confused because there is no assumption that the function $f$ is onto. Hence there might be an element $y \in Y$ such that for no $x \in X$, $f(x) = y$. I actually don't know if in this case the expression $f^{-1}(Y)$ makes sense.