I'm working on an exercise about the Gamma Function from Euler.
First, $\Gamma (z)= \int_0^\infty e^{-t}t^{z-1}dt$.
Now, if we consider the "similar" function $\int_{\frac{1}{n}}^\infty e^{-t}t^{z-1}dt$, why is this holomorphic in $\mathbb{C}$ for any $n$?
And then, why is $\Gamma (z)$ holomorphic in the right half plane, i.e. $Re(z)>0$?
We know that the integrand is holomorphic and its integral should be holomorphic, too, then, since we can write the integrand as a polynomial which we then integrate. But surely, this is not rigorous enough, or is it?
I'd appreciate help!
-marie