In Carmichael's Diophantine Analysis ($\S8$), he notes that the equation $$X^2-dY^2=Z^2 \qquad(\dagger)$$ has a two-parameter solution $$x=m^2+dn^2, \quad y=2mn, \quad z=m^2-dn^2. \qquad(\star)$$ He then says “there is no ready means for determining whether this is the general solution”, and goes on to give a [much more complicated] general solution.
Is Carmichael’s conclusion true? i.e. Can it neither be proven nor disproven [easily] that $(\star)$ is indeed a general parametric solution to $(\dagger)$?
EDIT: In Barbeau’s Pell’s Equation (pg. 36), it says:
Exercise 2.8. [...] (a) Consider the case d=2 [of the equation $U^2-W^2=dV^2$]. Obtain the parametric solutions $$(u,v,w)=(r^2+2s^2,2rs,2s^2-r^2)$$ and $$(u,v,w)=(2r^2+s^2,2rs,s^2-2r^2).$$ (b) Obtain a parametric set of solutions for $u^2-dv^2=w^2$.
Given that this ‘exercise’ appears early in such an elementary textbook, it seems likely to me that there is a solution similar to $(\star)$ which is valid [though clearly $(\star)$ is not, as pointed out in the comments].
EDIT: Maybe Barbeau means let $d=d_1d_2$ and $v=v_1v_2$ be arbitrary factorizations, so that $dv^2=u^2-w^2=(u-w)(u+w)$ implies $u-w=d_1v_1^2$ and $u+w=d_2v_2^2$, yielding the parametric solution $$(u,v,w) = \biggl(\frac{d_2v_2^2+d_1v_1^2}{2},v_1v_2,\frac{d_2v_2^2-d_1v_1^2}{2}\biggr).$$
I think this will be a nice short reference – Bumblebee Jul 07 '14 at 03:03
Any solution $(m,n)=(3n,n)$ will give you a solution proportional to $(2,1,1)$ [with $z$ positive. For example, $(m,n)=(3,1)$ yields $$(x',y',z')=(m^2+3n^2,2mn,m^2-3n^2)=(12,6,6),$$ and dividing by $6$ gives you the desired $(x,y,z)=(2,1,1)$.
Yay, Noam!! =)
– Kieren MacMillan Jul 07 '14 at 14:30