Define the following pseudo-metric on the set of measurable subsets of $R$:
$$D(A,B)=\operatorname{Length}((A\setminus B) \cup (B\setminus A)),$$
i.e., the distance between $A$ and $B$ is the measure of their symmetric distance.
Is the set of measurable subsets of $R$ closed under this metric?
After reading a recent answer by Conifold, Compactness of a set of partitions, showing that the subspace of measurable functions is not closed under another the Tychonoff topology, my guess was that the set of measurable subsets is also not closed. So I tried to look for a counter-example consisting of:
- A sequence of sets $A_1,A_2,...$, all measurable;
- A non-measurable set $L$;
Such that the sequence $A_i$ converges to $L$ under $D$. But I am not exactly sure how to define this convergence. Initially I wrote: $M(A_i\setminus L \cup L\setminus A_i)$ converges to 0, but following a comment by GEdgar, I am not sure I can write this because $M$ is not defined on $L$.
Here is my attempt:
Define a sequence of finite sets that converges the set of rational numbers:
- Define some linear ordering on the rational numbers in $[0,1]$.
- For every $i>0$, define $Q_i$ as the rational numbers up to and including the $i$th rational number in that ordering.
Now define the sets $A_i$ using the "Vitali set" construction but taking $Q_i$ instead of $Q$.
Every $Q_i$ is finite, so the $A_i$'s are measurable. However, $Q_i$ converges to $Q$ so $L$ is a Vitaly set which is not measurable.
I am not convinced by this counter-example... can you provide a better one?