I am trying to see that two permutations are conjugate exactly when they have the same cycle decomposition. I fail to see that
$$r(i_1,i_2,\dots,i_k)r^{−1}=(r(i_1),r(i_2),\dots,r(i_k))$$ for permutations $r$ in a set $X\ni \{i_p\}^k_0$
Any thoughts would be appreciated.
p.s. I ask this question in a new post as suggested by Mr. Gerry Myerson. Still, I believe it belongs to the above thread.