In a homework assignment, I am asked to find $(P_3 \circ P_1)^{-1}$ knowing:
Let $P_1 = (3\ 4\ 1\ 2\ 5), P_2 = (3\ 5\ 1\ 2\ 4)$ and $P_3 = (5\ 1\ 4\ 2\ 3)$ be three permutations.
I am second-guesing the final guessing the final step (where the composition is inverted), since the inversion seems to be the same value as the non-inverted set.
Is my method correct?
$(P_3 \circ P_1)^{-1}$ can be written as $(P_3(P_1(x)))^{-1}$ for each $x\in P_3$. So:
$(P_3 \circ P_1(1)) = (P_3(P_1(1))) = (P_3(3)) = 4$
$(P_3 \circ P_1(2)) = (P_3(P_1(2))) = (P_3(4)) = 2$
$(P_3 \circ P_1(3)) = (P_3(P_1(3))) = (P_3(1)) = 5$
$(P_3 \circ P_1(4)) = (P_3(P_1(4))) = (P_3(2)) = 1$
$(P_3 \circ P_1(5)) = (P_3(P_1(5))) = (P_3(5)) = 3$
So, $(P_3 \circ P_1) = (4\ 2\ 5\ 1\ 3)$ and so $(P_3 \circ P_1)^{-1} = (4\ 2\ 5\ 1\ 3)$