Suppose we have a continuous function $g:\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ that satisfies $|g(x)| \leq C|x|$. Let $u_{n} \to u$ in $L^2(0,T;L^2)$. I want to show that $g(u_{n'}) \to g(u)$ in $L^2(0,T;L^2)$. for a subsequence $n'$.
I was thinking since we only care about a subsequence, we can extract $u_{n'} \to u$ pointwise a.e. But the Dominated Convergence Theorem does not apply because we can't find a uniform bound (there is a bound because $g$ is bounded linearly but obviously it is not uniform).
However we can use this theorem from here
where $N_f(u)(z) = f(z,u(z))$.
Define $f\colon [0,T] \times L^2(\Omega) \to L^2(\Omega)$ by $f(t, u) = g(u)$. $f$ is Caratheodory since $g$ is continuous. Define $N_f(u)(t) = f(t,u(t)) = g(u(t))$. If $u \in L^2(0,T;L^2)$ then $$|N_f(u)(t)|^2 = |g(u(t))|^2 \leq C|u(t)|^2$$ which is in $L^2(\Omega)$. So $N_f(u) \in L^2(0,T;L^2)$. Therefore the theorem applies and $N_f$ is continuous. So if $u_n \to u$ in $L^2(0,T;L^2)$ then $g(u_n) \to g(u)$ in $L^2(0,T;L^2)$.
Question:
Is this a correct proof?
I feel weird about this because this removes the need for the dominated convergence theorem when we don't have a uniform bound. Surely this must be more well-known if what I wrote is correct.