Prove that the binomial coefficient $\binom {n}{k} = \frac {n!} {(n-k)!k!}$, viewed as a function of $k$, has maximum at $k=\lfloor n/2 \rfloor, \lceil n/2 \rceil$ if $n$ is odd and maximum at $k=n/2$ if $n$ is even.
Also how do I see that $\binom {n}{k} = \frac {n!} {(n-k)!k!}$ is increasing on $[0;n/2]$ and decreasing on $[n/2;n]$ ?
I see that $\binom {n}{k} = \frac {n!} {(n-k)!k!} = \frac {n!} {(n-(n-k))!(n-k)!} = \binom {n}{n-k}$, so clearly the function is symmetric around $n/2$.
If it is possible, I would like an answer not depending on the derivative, but more on algebra.