This feels as though it should be falsifiable, but it's not immediately obvious to me. The informal version of the statement is 'for every non-intersecting curve between two opposite corners of a square, there's a curve between the other two corners that only intersects it once.' Formally:
Let $f(): [0, 1]\mapsto [0,1]^2$ be a non-self-intersecting curve with $f(0) = \langle0,0\rangle$, $f(1) = \langle1,1\rangle$, and $f(t)\in (0,1)^2$ for $t\in(0,1)$. (Note that I'm requiring that all but the endpoints of the curve lie in the open square!) Then there exists a non-self-intersecting curve $g(): [0, 1]\mapsto [0,1]^2$ with $g(0) = \langle1,0\rangle$, $g(1) = \langle0,1\rangle$, and $g(t)\in (0,1)^2$ for $t\in(0,1)$ such that there are unique $t_0$ and $ t_1$ with $f(t_0) = g(t_1)$.
This feels like it ought to be a consequence of the JCT and/or Schoenflies' theorem, but the catch is that I don't see any clean ways of ensuring that a $g()$ constructed by those theorems actually maps back to the interior of the square as opposed to its boundary.