Inspired by this recent question, I want to prove that if $a, b, d$ are integers such that $a$ and $b$ are coprime to $d$, $d > 1$, and $a^n \equiv b^n \pmod{d^n}$ for every $n = 1, 2, 3, \ldots$ then indeed $a = b$. I think this must be a corollary of some major result from elementary number theory, but I can't find such a result right now.
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why not set $n=1$? – Ben Grossmann Jun 04 '14 at 13:43
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@Omnomnomnom That doesn't tell you much unless $d>\lvert a-b\rvert$. – Harald Hanche-Olsen Jun 04 '14 at 13:46
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whoops I misread something there. Makes sense now. – Ben Grossmann Jun 04 '14 at 13:54
2 Answers
A possible major result is the so-called 'Lifting The Exponent Lemma', as I wrote in my answer to that other question. It is actually a collection of lemma's. I'll restate them, as they are to be found in the above link.
We use the notation $\nu_p(n)$ for the exponent of $p$ (possibly $0$) in the prime factorization of $n$.
Theorem 1. Let $x$ and $y$ be (not necessarily positive) integers, let $n$ be a positive integer, and let $p$ be an odd prime such that $p\mid x-y$ and none of $x$ and $y$ is divisible by $p$. We have $\nu_p(x^n-y^n)=\nu_p(x-y)+\nu_p(n)$.
Theorem 2 is an analoguous form for $x^n+y^n$ and $n$ odd, which is easily deduced.
There are two results for the case $p=2$.
Theorem 3. Let $x$ and $y$ be two odd integers such that $4\mid x-y$. Then $\nu_2(x^n-y^n)=\nu_2(x-y)+\nu_2(n)$.
and
Theorem 4. Let $x$ and $y$ be two odd integers and let $n$ be an even positive integer. Then $\nu_2(x^n-y^n)=\nu_2(x^2-y^2)+\nu_2(n)-1$.
These results prove useful in various number theory problems, and they are worth being memorized.

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The statements of these theorems are better placed not here but in the prior answer where you invoked them (links to external sources always become stale after some point, so you should not depend upon them be persistent). – Bill Dubuque Jun 04 '14 at 15:07
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From $n=1$ we have $a=b+dk$ for some integer $k$. We now have $$d^n|(a^n-b^n)=(b+dk)^n-b^n$$
Hence $(\frac{b}{d}+k)^n-(\frac{b}{d})^n\in\mathbb{Z}$ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$. We must also have $\frac{b}{d}\notin \mathbb{Z}$ since $\gcd(b,d)=1$. The result now follows from the question you linked.

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-1 This a mounts a circular proof, since most proofs of the linked theorem reduce to this. – Bill Dubuque Jun 04 '14 at 15:12
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You must show each step clearly, because its not obvious what you id after "Hence" – Aven Desta Dec 17 '20 at 15:50