$\sqrt{x}=\sqrt{1\cdot x}=\sqrt{(-1)^2\cdot x} = \sqrt{(-1)^2} \cdot \sqrt{x} = (-1) \cdot \sqrt{x}=-\sqrt{x}$
The idea popped into my head while I was evaluating an integral. I have a feeling that I made some obvious mistake because the "proof" is so simple, but I don't see any flaw. Of course, there must be a flaw somewhere. What is it?