(I am giving it a try here. I request the fellow readers to kindly check the sanctity!)
As the question explicitly asked for Fourier series, the time period is $T < \infty$.
Now $$c_n = \frac{1}{T}\int_0^Tf(t) e^{-2\pi int/T}dt$$
but $$c_n = \frac{1}{T}\int_0^Tf(t+1) e^{-2\pi int/T}\, dt=\left[ \frac{1}{T}\int_1^{T+1}f(t) e^{-2\pi int/T} \, dt \right]e^{2\pi in/T}$$ (Equation 1).
Similarly by putting $f(t+\sqrt2)$ in place of $f(t)$, we can get
$$c_n =\left[ \frac{1}{T}\int_{\sqrt 2}^{T+\sqrt 2}f(t) e^{-2\pi int/T} \, dt \right]e^{-2 \sqrt 2\pi in/T}$$ (Equation 2).
The terms in the brackets (in the last two equations) are the same as we are integrating over 1 time period in both cases, and they are equal to $c_n$.
Now substracting eq. 1 from eq. 2, and replacing the bracket term with $c_n$ we can get
$$c_n(e^{-2 \sqrt 2\pi in/T} - e^{2\pi in/T}) = 0.$$ Now clearly the term in the bracket can not be equal to zero, hence $c_n$ must be zero for all $n\neq 0$. For $n=0, c_0$ is non zero.
So after all this, we can see that there is no fluctuating component in the Fourier Series expansion of the given function, and hence it has to be constant!
Note: I have used substitution method to get equation 1 & 2.