I'm having some trouble with the following question:
Let $A, B \in \mathbb{R}^{n \times n}$ and let $A$ be invertible. Is it true that in this case $rank(BA)=rank(B)$?
I think that this statement is correct, but I'm unable to prove it.
My thoughts so far:
If $B$ is also invertible the statement clearly holds, since $GL_n(\mathbb{R})$ is a group.
For $B$ not invertible we immediately have the inequality $rank(BA) \leq rank(B)$ because the columns of $BA$ are linear combinations of the columns of $B$.
Now I've tried to prove the other inequality by contradiction, i.e. assuming that $rank(BA)<rank(B)$ and showing that this cannot be. But I can't complete this step.
Thanks in advance for any help!