0

According to Implicit Function Theorem Wikipedia Page

it has been said : The implicit function theorem says that if $Y$ is an invertible matrix, then there are $U$, $V$, and $g$ as desired. How is the bold statement exactly concluded?

5xum
  • 123,496
  • 6
  • 128
  • 204
FreeMind
  • 2,539
  • 3
  • 20
  • 41
  • 1
    Are you asking for the proof of the theorem? – 5xum May 08 '14 at 06:47
  • What exactly don't you understand? The "bold statement" seems about right to me – Dalamar May 08 '14 at 06:47
  • Yeah, simply I'm looking for a better stated proof. – FreeMind May 08 '14 at 06:56
  • @Dalamar Why does it seem right to you?! – FreeMind May 08 '14 at 06:56
  • That's not a proof, that's a "moral" statement to help you understand the "intention" of the theorem. The internet is just awash with actual proofs of Dini's theorem. – Dalamar May 08 '14 at 07:01
  • At least you could give one of the million resources you know on the internet, don't answer the questions by making generalities. – FreeMind May 08 '14 at 07:08
  • 2
    http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/433283/better-proofs-than-rudins-for-the-inverse-and-implicit-function-theorems You could also download Loomis-Sternberg Advanced calculus. It's free and it's a great book. – Dalamar May 08 '14 at 07:42

0 Answers0