As a kind of aside to this question, where one of the answers assumed that if $S^n=X \times Y$ then we can assume that $X$ and $Y$ are manifolds.
If we have a manifold $M$, such that $M$ is homeomorphic to $X \times Y$, then must $X$ and $Y$ be manifolds? The converse ($X,Y$ manifolds implies $X \times Y$ is a manifold) is certainly true. I'd like to think it is true, but I have seen enough strange topological behaviour to suggest this may not be true.
For this question take 'manifold' to mean a second countable Hausdorff space that is locally homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^n$, for some finite $n$.