3

Let $X$ be a Polish space and $f\colon\mathbb{R}\to X$. Then since $\mathbb{R}=\bigcup_{n=-\infty }^\infty [n,n+1]$ - a countable union of compact set, $f(X)$ is a countable union of compact sets $\Rightarrow$ $f(X)$ is $F_\sigma$$\Rightarrow$ Borel.

I think that there is a problem with this argument as it can be easily extended to open sets in $\mathbb{R}^n$ and their images are not always Borel. I need help.

Many thanks in advance!

peter
  • 90
  • 1
  • 5

1 Answers1

4

The argument is correct, and it extends to $\Bbb R^n$ as well, and to every other $\sigma$-compact Polish space.

The "problem" that you point to is that not every Borel set is $\sigma$-compact, so this is not true in general for every Borel subset of $\Bbb R^n$, and not every Polish space is $\sigma$-compact (e.g. $\omega^\omega$ is not $\sigma$-compact) so it's not true in general for every Polish space.

But there's no real issue with $\Bbb R^n$.

Asaf Karagila
  • 393,674