6 years later, but the given answer is i feel incorrect/incomplete.
The relation with swapping sums was correct, and $\sum_n\sum_m a_{n,m}=\sum_m\sum_n a_{n,m}$ is valid for regularization, as long as the shape of the sums/whatever is regularized stays the same.
The question made the mistake assuming Taylor series have a the lower limit of 0. Just like most general series, this should be in reality minus infinity and positive infinity.
Let's take the example where we start at n=1, you can add yourself n=0.
Changed e^(-x) into c.
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}c^{n}= \frac{c}{1-c}$$
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}c^{n}= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\sum_{k \in \mathbb{Z}}\frac{(n\ln(c))^{k}}{k!}=$$
$$\sum_{k \in \mathbb{Z}}\frac{\zeta(-k)\ln^{k}(c)}{k!}=$$
if k<-2 it's 0. if k is -1, you need to look at the limit, which is $\frac{-1}{ln(c)}$.
$$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{\zeta(-k)\ln^{k}(c)}{k!}=\frac{c}{1-c}+\frac{1}{ln(c)}$$
As can been seen writen in the answer above.
$$\sum_{k \in \mathbb{Z}}\frac{\zeta(-k)\ln^{k}(c)}{k!}=\frac{c}{1-c}$$