So Axiom of regularity states: every non-empty set A contains an element that is disjoint from A
I'm wondering if this is equivalent as any set is not a member of itself? If so, how do we prove it?
If not, I am wondering is knowing any set is not a member of itself sufficient to derive that a∈b and b∈a cannot be both true?
~matti
(you might have to addwww.
at the beginning too) Here's a direct link to the file, might save some time: http://www.math.bgu.ac.il/~matti/Axiomatic-ST-2012-09--Negation-of-Fnd-is-consistent.pdf I'm pretty sure the proof is due to Bernays, at least from the looks of it. But only an examination of his paper (and Specker's habilitation) will give a conclusive answer. – Asaf Karagila Apr 11 '14 at 20:35