If $$\lim_{(x,y) \to (a,b)} f(x,y) = L$$ and if the one dimensional limits -
$$ \lim_{x \to a} f(x,y)$$ and $$ \lim_{y \to b} f(x,y)$$ both exist, then prove that -
$$ \lim_{x \to a}\left[\lim_{y \to b} f(x,y)\right] = \lim_{y \to b}\left[\lim_{x \to a} f(x,y)\right] = L$$
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Git Gud
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rockstar123
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Counterexample: $f(x,y)=r^2\theta$ where $r$ and $\theta$ are the polar coordinates. The latter runs in $[0,2\pi)$. Then $f$ converges to zero continuously in the origin, but only one of the iterated limits exists in a neighborhood of zero.

Enredanrestos
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There's a condition that both of those limits must also exist. – Kitegi Aug 16 '15 at 21:23
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you are right. well.. – Enredanrestos Aug 16 '15 at 21:30