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Does anyone know how to show that: $\Sigma_{k=0}^n k \binom{n}{k} = n2^{n-1}$?

I think we are suppose to use the binomial formula for that..

Thank you!

A student
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    http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/355262/closed-form-expression-for-sum-k-0n-binomnkkp-for-integers-n-p is a generalization of your question. – user37238 Apr 08 '14 at 09:07

2 Answers2

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The simplest way is to take the derivative at $x=1$ of the binomial identity $$ (1+x)^n=\sum_{k=0}^n\binom{n}{k}x^k. $$

Omran Kouba
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Hint: Differentiate both sides of: $(x+1)^n = \sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k} \cdot x^k$ and put $x = 1$ to get the answer.

DeepSea
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