We know that there is a natural isomorphsm between $$V^*\otimes W \text{ and } Hom(V,W)$$ whenever either $V$ or $W$ is finite dimensional. (We also know that there always exists a linear map from $$V^*\otimes W \rightarrow Hom(V,W)$$ regardless of their dimension.
I am looking for an explicit example why such isomorphism does not exist if both are infinite dimensional. I am not sure how important this fact is, but I am merely asking out of curiosity.