A common way to characterize the dirac delta function $\delta$ is by the following two properties:
$$1)\ \delta(x) = 0\ \ \text{for}\ \ x \neq 0$$
$$2)\ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\delta(x)\ dx = 1$$
I have seen a proof of the sifting property for the delta function from these two properties as follows:
Starting with
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\delta(x-t)f(x)\ dx$$
for some "sufficiently smooth" function $f$, since $\delta(x - t) = 0$ for $x \neq t$ we can restrict the integral to some epsilon interval around $t$
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\delta(x-t)f(x)\ dx = \int_{t-\epsilon}^{t+\epsilon}\delta(x-t)f(x)\ dx$$
On this infinitesimal interval, $f$ is "approximately constant" and so we can remove it from the integral
$$\int_{t-\epsilon}^{t+\epsilon}\delta(x-t)f(x)\ dx = f(t)\int_{t-\epsilon}^{t+\epsilon}\delta(x-t)\ dx = f(t)$$
This proof seems a little too hand wavy for me. The points I find problematic are in quotations. What is meant by "sufficiently smooth" in this case? Is continuous enough? Also, how exactly is the extraction of the function from the integral done rigorously, without just assuming that it is "approximately constant"? I have seen this proof done with non-standard analysis and I understand that the delta function is by nature a rather "hand wavy" object so that a rigorous proof using these two properties may not even exist. Still I ask if anyone can perhaps make the above proof rigorous or offer a new proof without appealing to non-standard analysis.
(I'm not too sure what tags to include for this question. If anyone could retag for me that'd be much appreciated