I was reading through a proof of the following proposition:
$$a\equiv b\!\!\pmod{m}\iff (a\bmod m) = (b\bmod m)$$
i.e. $\ a \equiv b \pmod{\!m} $ if and only if a and b leave the same remainder when divided by m
I came across a statement that I didn't quite understand. I boxed my area of confusion below:
I am confused because I expected the inequality to be $ 0 \leq r_1 - r_2 < m$. How did they come to the conclusion that $ -m < r_1 - r_2 < m$
Any input is appreciated.