So $y=\sin^{-1}(x)^2$
I am asked to find $\frac{dy}{dx}$
Using the chain rule I find
$\frac{dy}{dx}$= $2\sin^{-1}(x) * \frac{d}{dx}(\sin^{-1}(x))$
I let
$z = \sin^{-1}(x)$
Multiplying both sides by sin
$\sin(z)=\sin(\sin^{-1}(x))$
$\sin(z)=x$
I want to find the derivative of z so I differentiate both sides
$\frac{d}{dx}(\sin(z))=\frac{dx}{dx}$ = 1
Using chain rule I find $\frac{d}{dx}(\sin(z))=$
$\cos(z)\frac{dz}{dx}=1$
So I move $\cos(z)$ over
$\frac{dz}{dx} = \frac{1}{\cos(z)}$
I know that $1 = \cos^2(z)+\sin^2(z)$ so
$\cos^2(z)=1-\sin^2(z)$
$\cos(z)=\frac{+}{-}\sqrt{1-\sin^2(z)}$
And this is where I am lost. The working says that from there, $\cos(z)$ is somehow
$=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}$
I am not sure how they came to that. Can someone please explain how they made that leap?