No; given that $P_1$ and $P_2$ are mutually exclusive conditions, it is still possible that they're both false, and so we cannot deduce anything from $P_1\rightarrow Q,$ nor from $P_2 \rightarrow Q$. Explicitly (note that false implies false), the following is a counterexample to the conjecture:
$$P_1 = \mathrm{False}, \;P_2 = \mathrm{False}, \;Q = \mathrm{False}$$
Now on the other hand, if $P_1$ and $P_2$ are mutually exhaustive conditions (i.e., at least one of them is true), and if we know that $P_1 \rightarrow Q$ and $P_2 \rightarrow Q,$ then we may deduce $Q$.