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$\sqrt[3]{31}$ is about $3.14138$. Why is this so close to $\pi$?

Superbus
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    You could have just said $\sqrt[3]{31}\approx3.1414$. – anon Mar 12 '14 at 04:32
  • How did you arrive at this approximation? – wckronholm Mar 12 '14 at 04:34
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    There are many approximations of $\pi$ out there: see http://mathworld.wolfram.com/PiApproximations.html – Lost Mar 12 '14 at 04:35
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    because there are a hundred and seven bazillion constants in the world and only so much room for all of them. a bunch of random numbers is going to contain some that are close to each other. – Greg Martin Mar 12 '14 at 04:35
  • The difference with $\pi$ is around $0.0002$. I wouldn't call it "so close", and the remaining hundreds of digits you posted are irrelevant to your question. – Martin Argerami Mar 12 '14 at 04:37
  • @wckronholm Wolfram Alpha Brother – Superbus Mar 12 '14 at 04:40
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    @LuciusTarquiniusSuperbus But what was your process? Were you just plugging random numbers in and seeing what comes out? Or was there some more intentional approach? – wckronholm Mar 12 '14 at 04:46
  • The question is "WHY". It sounds as WHY $\pi$ is very very close to $\pi$. What answer needs such a question? – kmitov Mar 12 '14 at 04:56
  • To answer a question with another question: Why is $\sinh\dfrac{\sqrt\pi}2$ so close to $1$ ? :-) – Lucian Mar 12 '14 at 11:57
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    "Close" is a matter of scale. Why is $\sqrt{1776}$ so close to $42$? Is the American revolution really is "The Answer"? – Asaf Karagila Mar 13 '14 at 16:17
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    @AsafKaragila "The answer" is the root of the American revolution. – Daniel Fischer Mar 13 '14 at 16:37
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    This strikes me as an odd question. It's like asking "why is 3.15 so close to 3.14?" – Alec Feb 23 '16 at 13:45
  • Go here $\longrightarrow$ https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1557739/just-another-pi-formula?rq=1 and look at the limit expressing the value of $\frac{\pi}{32}$. Try to now derive a formula for $\frac{\pi^3}{32}$ and look what happens. – Mr Pie Feb 18 '18 at 03:23

4 Answers4

56

This series is the reason:

$$ \frac{\pi^3}{32} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)^3} $$

Now just truncate the series at the third term and multiply both sides by 32.

$$\pi^3\approx 32-\frac{32}{27}+\frac{32}{125}=31 + \left(\frac{32}{125}-\frac{5}{27}\right)$$

Now because

$$\frac{32}{125}-\frac{5}{27}=0.0708148$$

is small we just drop it.

@chubakueno

I don't believe you . Can you prove it or provide a reference?

First off you asked for some references

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_formulae_involving_%CF%80

http://www.dansmath.com/pages/pipage.html

Enter this at Alpha "Sum[(-1)^n / (2n+1)^3, {n,0,infinity}]//FullSimplify"

From the book Integrals and Series Vol 1 by Prudnikov, Brychkov, Marichev. p653 #2

I do not have a proof but suspect it might be possible using a Fourier series. Anyway, it does not belong in this thread so maybe you should open up another thread and ask the question about whether the series quoted sums to what the references say.

Castellano gives:

$$\pi^3 \approx \left ( 31+\frac{62^2+14}{28^4} \right )$$

An amazing approximation and appears to be done empirically. Here the fraction is 10 times smaller then in the other example. Again, we can just drop it. It appears we can come up with lots of these.

bobbym
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6

We have the following series $$\pi^6-31^2=3\sum_{k=0}^\infty \left(\frac{77}{(2k+3)^6}+\frac{243}{(2k+5)^6}\right)$$

(see https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1651175/134791)

The difference is close to zero because the terms of the summation are small.

3

Disclaimer: Not totally relevant answer.

Even better approximation $$ \sqrt[10]{93648}=3.14159248\ldots $$ due to the fact that $$ \frac{\pi^{10}}{93555}=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n^6}=\frac{1025}{1024}\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{(2k+1)^{10}}, $$ and hence $$ \pi^{10}=93555\cdot\frac{1025}{1024}\left(1+\frac{1}{3^{10}}+\cdots\right)=93648.047\ldots $$

1

Say that you want to approximate $\Gamma\left(\frac14\right)$, you know that

$$\int_0^1 t^{x-1}(1-t)^{y-1}\;\mathrm{d}x=\frac{\Gamma(x)\Gamma(y)}{\Gamma(x+y)}$$

and / also

$$\int_0^{\pi/2} \sin^{2n-1}\theta\cos^{2m-1}\theta\;\mathrm{d}\theta=\frac12\frac{\Gamma(n)\Gamma(m)}{\Gamma(n+m)}$$

Specially for $m=1/2$:

$$\int_0^\pi \sin^{2n-1}\theta\;\mathrm{d}\theta=\frac{\Gamma(n)\Gamma(1/2)}{\Gamma(n+1/2)}=\sqrt{\pi}\frac{\Gamma(n)}{\Gamma(n+1/2)}$$

Say you want to aproximate the function $\sin\theta$ on $(0,\pi)$ with the function : $a\,\theta(\pi-\theta)$ so that the latter integral is exact for some chosen $n$ (you want to find $a$) As we can see, the relation is satysfied for all $a$ for $n=1/2$ trivially. By substitution $\theta = \pi t$ :

$$\int_0^\pi \left[a\,\theta(\pi-\theta)\right]^{2n-1}\;\mathrm{d}\theta=a^{2n-1}\pi^{4n-1}\frac{\Gamma^2(n)}{\Gamma(2n)}$$

Lets say the integral is exact for $n=1$ i.e.

$$a\pi^{3}\frac{\Gamma^2(2)}{\Gamma(4)} = \sqrt{\pi}\frac{\Gamma(1)}{\Gamma(1+1/2)}$$

Solving for $a$ gives us :

$$a=\frac{2}{\pi^3}$$

So, the aproximate relation now is :

$$\sqrt{\pi}\frac{\Gamma(n)}{\Gamma(n+1/2)} \approx \frac{2^{2n-1}}{\pi^{2n-2}}\frac{\Gamma^2(n)}{\Gamma(2n)} $$

Which turns into equality when $n=1$ or trivially when $n=1/2$

When we insert $n=3/4$ and $5/4$ to the approximate formula and with the help of the Euler reflection formula we get $$\pi^3\approx 32$$

Machinato
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