In this question I was trying to see why $k$-forms are selected as the way to generalize vector calculus rather than $k$-vectors and a comment providing links to other questions made me end up with another doubt on the geometric interpretation of $k$-forms and $k$-vectors.
Considering for a while $\Lambda^k(V)$ and $\Lambda^k(V^\ast)$ without regard to manifolds, I've convinced myself very well that an element of $\Lambda^k(V)$ represents simply pieces of $k$-dimensional planes. So for instance, if $v,w\in V$ then $v\wedge w\in \Lambda^2(V)$ would be simply the oriented paralelogram generated by $v$ and $w$ and it would carry it's area as information.
My understanding of an element of $\Lambda^k(V^\ast)$ was that of an object which can do measures with objects from $\Lambda^k(V)$. So that if $\omega \in \Lambda^1(V)=V^\ast$, then putting $\hat{\omega}=\omega^{-1}(1)$ we see that $\hat{\omega}$ can represent $\omega$ in the sense that $\omega$ defines what means for a vector to cross $1$ unit along a direction without regard to metrics.
Now, my doubt is that in that answers, people consider elements from $\Lambda^k(V^\ast)$ as pieces of $k$-planes also. So that $dx\wedge dy$ would be consider as the paralelogram $e_1\wedge e_2$. This confuses me a lot, and I think the problem is that I'm really failing to get the interpretation of $k$-forms.
Is this right to represent $dx\wedge dy$ by that paralelogram? If so, why is that? How to really get these ideas?