This is a rather easy question, but I'm not entirely confident in why I think this is true.
Let $F$ be a field. Consider $F[x,y]$. I want to show that the ring $F[x,y]/(y^{2} - x)$ is an integral domain.
My thought process is that because $F$ is a field, $F[x,y]$ is a unique factorization domain. I'm inclined to say that $y^{2} - x$ is irreducible in $F[x,y]$ (and therefore a prime ideal, so the quotient we are considering would indeed be an integral domain). But I'm not entirely confident in my judgment that $y^{2} - x$ is irreducible. Is it a stretch to say that this follows from Eisenstein's criterion?