I saw this notation many times, but I don't understand why the $y$ variable is missing in the first term of the first equation below.
$$ \frac{\mathrm{d}y(x)}{\mathrm{d}x} = f(x,y) $$
It just mean:
$$ \frac{\mathrm{d}y(x,y)}{\mathrm{d}x} = f(x,y) $$
?
Tell me if I'm wrong
In my understanding this is a linear ODE of first order in which $y$ is the unknown function and both of them (the derivate and the unknown one) have just a single variable.
$$ y'(x) = f(x) $$
A simple example
$$ \begin{align} y'(x) &= 2x\\ \int y'(x)\!\mathop{}\mathrm{d}x &= \int 2x\!\mathop{}\mathrm{d}x\\ y(x)&= x^2+\mathrm{C}\\ \end{align} $$
Is this case:
$$ \dfrac{\mathrm dy}{\mathrm dx}(x)=f(x,y(x)) $$
would it be something like this?
$$ \begin{align} y'(x,y) &= 2x + 2y\\ \iint y'(x,y)\!\mathop{}\mathrm{d}x\!\mathop{}\mathrm{d}y &= \iint 2x + 2y\!\mathop{}\mathrm{d}x\!\mathop{}\mathrm{d}y\\ y(x,y) &= x^2 + y^2+\mathrm{C}\\ \end{align} $$
For Christian Blatter
This is what I would expected to be your exaplanation. Can you tell me why my version is wrong?
When dealing with ODEs for the first time we are given a function $f:\ (x,y)\mapsto f(x,y)$ defined in some region $\Omega$ of the $(x,y)$-plane. For each $(x,y)\in\Omega$ the value $f(x,y)$ is to be interpreted as a slope assigned to the point $(x,y)$. Therefore we are given a field of "line elements" of various slopes covering $\Omega$.
Given this "slope field" we are interested in curves $$\gamma:\ x\mapsto \gamma(x)=\bigl(x,\gamma(x)\bigr)\qquad(a<x<b)$$ lying in $\Omega$ that have for each of their points $\bigl(x,\gamma(x)\bigr)$ the slope $f\bigl(x,\gamma(x)\bigr)$ prescribed there. This means that we should have $$\gamma'(x)\equiv f\bigl(x,\gamma(x)\bigr)\qquad(a<x<b)\ .\tag{1}$$