Let $p$ be a prime and let $a$ be an integer not divisible by $p$. Then $$a\times2a\times3a\times...\times(p-1)a\equiv 1\times2\times3\times...\times(p-1) (\bmod p)$$
How do you approach this proof?
Let $p$ be a prime and let $a$ be an integer not divisible by $p$. Then $$a\times2a\times3a\times...\times(p-1)a\equiv 1\times2\times3\times...\times(p-1) (\bmod p)$$
How do you approach this proof?
The question you asked recently asks one to show that $a,2a,3a,\dots,pa$ is a complete residue system modulo $p$. If we remove the $pa$, we get a reduced residue system. The numbers $a,2a,3a,\dots,(p-1)a$ are congruent, in some order, to $1,2,3,\dots,p-1$ modulo $p$. It follows that their product $(a)(2a)\cdots((p-1)a)$ is congruent to $(1)(2)\cdots(p-1)$ modulo $p$.
Concrete example: Take $p=7$ and $a=2$. We look at $2,2\cdot 2, 3\cdot 2, \dots, 6\cdot 2$. These are congruent, modulo $7$, to $2,4,6,1,3,5$. These are just $1,2,3,4,5,6$ rearranged. So their product is congruent to $(1)(2)(3)(4)(5)(6)$ modulo $7$.
Do in detail another concrete example, such as $a=4$ and $p=11$, and you will fully understand what's happening.