Consider a Hilbert system $\mathcal{T}$ with modus ponens as the unique deduction rule, and subject to the following four axioms:
For any relations $R,S$ and $T$ of $\mathcal{T}$, the relations
- $(R\lor R)\Rightarrow R$,
- $R\Rightarrow (R\lor S)$,
- $(R\lor S)\Rightarrow (S\lor R)$, and
- $(R\Rightarrow S)\Longrightarrow ((R\lor T)\Rightarrow (S\lor T))$,
are also theorems (true relations) of $\mathcal{T}$.
Now let $A$ be a relation of $\mathcal{T}$, and consider a Hilbert system $\mathcal{T}'$, with modus ponens as well and subject to the same four axioms plus this fifth one:
- $\neg A$
Question: How could one directly prove by pure and straight forward propositional calculus means that if $\mathcal{T}'$ is contradictory, then $\neg A\Rightarrow A$ must be a theorem of $\mathcal{T}$, and this without invoking nor paraphrasing the deduction lemma nor any other sophisticated compactness result?
At most, one can use the following 5 results:
LT 1 : If $R\Rightarrow S$ and $S\Rightarrow T$, then $R\Rightarrow T$.
LT 2 : $R\Rightarrow R$.
LT 3 : $R\Leftrightarrow\neg(\neg R)$.
LT 4 : $(R\Rightarrow S)\Longleftrightarrow(\neg S\Rightarrow\neg R)$.
LT 5 : $R\land S\Rightarrow R$ and $R\land S\Rightarrow S$ are both true.
Raison d'être... Since the hypothesis of this problem has already startled more than one, I'm gonna delve further into what I'm out to get.
Whether I'm using "an incomplete relevant sort of logic" or just fooling myself around, that I don't know, but in any case the Hilbert system I've just described is the starting setting of Bourbaki's Théorie des ensembles, as well as that of Godement's Cours d'algèbre. Precisely after having only proved LT1,$\ldots$, LT5, and nothing else, the latter author discusses reductio ad absurdum, and states that
This method of proof that $R$ is true consists in temporarily adjoining $\neg R$ to the axioms of mathematics and showing that the "new" mathematics so obtained is contradictory; by Remark 5 [cf. op. cit., p. 29], every relation is true in the new system, and in particular $R$ itself. Hence $R$ is a logical consequence of the (usual) axioms of mathematics and the relation $\neg R$; and this means, as is easily seen, that the relation $$\neg R\Rightarrow R$$ is true (in ordinary mathematics, i.e., in the original system to which we have now returned).
Needless to say that by "(usual) axioms of mathematics" Godement means those that I have posted above, and that that devilish "as is easily seen" has driven me nuts!!!
It just remains to prove that now one can actually reach $R$. From $\neg R\Rightarrow R$ and (4), Godement deduces that $$(\neg R\Rightarrow R)\Longrightarrow [(\neg R \lor R)\Rightarrow(R \lor R)]$$ is true, and since it has been already been found that $\neg R\Rightarrow R$ is a theorem, the relation$$(\neg R \lor R)\Rightarrow(R \lor R)$$ is true as well. Certainly you would not object the truthfulness of $\neg R \lor R$, so by (3) and modus ponens $R\lor R$ is true, and from (1) it finally follows that $R$ is true.
Bourbaki essentially does the same, but immediately after having proved at length the deduction lemma, which he formulates as follows:
Let $A$ be a relation of $\ \mathcal{T}$, and $\ \mathcal{T}'$ the theory obtained by adjoining $A$ to the axioms of $\ \mathcal{T}$. If $B$ is a theorem of $\ \mathcal{T}'$, then $A\Rightarrow B$ is a theorem of $\ \mathcal{T}$.
You don't seem to have the standard weakening and self-distribution axioms for $ \Rightarrow $ also you don't seem to have any axioms for $ \Leftrightarrow $ and also no \land $ introduction axiom. Can the missing axioms be used or do you really mean to use some strange incomplete relevant logic?
– Willemien Feb 18 '14 at 21:44