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Suppose that we work in Ab, the category of abelian groups. Consider a map $f : A \rightarrow B$ and let $\ker(f) = \{a \in A : f(a) = 0\}$. Now suppose that one can find a map $k : K \rightarrow A$ such that $fk = 0$ and for all maps $\eta : V \rightarrow A$ with $\eta f = 0$ there is a unique map $\theta : V \rightarrow K$ such that $\eta = k\theta$.

My question is: Do people consider $(k : K \rightarrow A) = (\ker(f) \subseteq A)$? I am not sure if there is an enlightening example for this. But usually the difference between $K$ and $\ker(f)$ are like the difference between $\{\pm 1\}$ and $\mathbb{Z}/(2)$.

Sometimes it is important to have equalities rather than isomorphisms, and it is very cumbersome to check which isomorphisms "work like equalities". I would like to say (loosely!) that any isomorphism from universal properties can be treated as equalities in the category that one works in (Ab in this case). In the case above, both $k$ and the inclusion $\ker(f) \hookrightarrow A$ share a common universal property, so there is a unique isomorphism between them (in a suitable category of arrows).

What I would like to hear is any justification (e.g. philosophical reason, specific examples) that says it is okay to consider canonical isomorphisms as equalities (or the other way around, if one may convince me).


Added (2/8/2014)

I apologize that I was not clear about what I meant by "canonical". When I say "two objects are canonically isomorphic" I mean that the objects have same categorical definition (i.e., they have a common universal property).

To me, it is less surprising that isomorphisms that are not from universal properties have some unexpected. We can consider a surjective abelian group map $A \rightarrow A$ with a nontrivial kernel $H$ (see Does $G\cong G/H$ imply that $H$ is trivial?), so in this case, we induce isomorphism $A/H \simeq A$.

Although this isomorphism is called "canonical", isomorphic objects of this kind may have some unwanted bizarre properties that they may have different torsion! I believe another example can be found in Patrick Da Silva's answer.

What I have been believing is that isomorphisms from universal properties do not have these unwanted behaviors, and the difference between two isomorphic objects (in categories of abelian groups, rings, modules over a fixed ring, vector spaces of a fixed field, etc) of this kind differ merely because they have "different names" in their elements, which is why I chose the example of $\{\pm 1\}$ and $\mathbb{Z}/(2)$ (one can also consider the set $\{0, 1\}$ with an obvious group structure to produce another example.) It was getting tiresome to prove that this kind of isomorphisms behave "as we expect" each time I encounter them, so I was wondering if there were any general facts or counterexamples that I was not aware of that corroborates or weakens my belief, respectively.

  • I think that $\eta k$ must be changed into $f\eta$. – drhab Feb 08 '14 at 16:05
  • Up to canonical(!) isomorphims is in a way the closest thing to equality we can get if we want to avoid resorting to such concrete things as underlying set. Even in Set, we tend to identify (with little harm if any) $A\times(B\times C)$ with $(A\times B)\times C$ even though they are not really the same. As a sidenote, your example of ${\pm 1}$ vs. $\mathbb Z/(2)$ fits into this as there is only one group of order $2$ up to unique isomorphism. This would not work for groups of order $3$, though (there's one up to isomorphism, but not up to unique or canonical isomorphism). – Hagen von Eitzen Feb 08 '14 at 16:06
  • @drhab Right. Thanks! – user123454321 Feb 08 '14 at 16:14
  • @HagenvonEitzen I was considering them being kernels of another object. Anyways, I like your example! – user123454321 Feb 08 '14 at 16:16

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The object $(k : K \to A)$ is uniquely defined up to isomorphism. But the set $\ker f$ together with the injection $i : \ker f \to A$ satisfies the property from $k : K \to A$, so if $(k,K)$ is a kernel for $A$ in $\mathrm{Ab}$, all we can say is that $K \simeq \ker f$ and that the obvious diagram that I cannot draw here commutes.

I must say I am in general not a big fan of considering canonical isomorphisms as equalities, as in the case of the isomorphism $M/(M \cap N) \simeq (M+N)/N$. Even though the isomorphism is canonical, it can lead to some issues when trying to prove things ; for instance when one wants to prove that given an exact sequence of $R$-modules $0 \to N \to M \to P \to 0$ where $N$ and $M$ are graded and the map $N \to M$ is a graded homomorphism, one wants to show that $M/N \simeq P$ is graded ; saying that $(M_n + N)/N \simeq M_n/(M_n \cap N) = M_n / N_n$ perhaps brings faith, but doesn't prove anything. One must actually go through the details of showing that $\bigoplus_{n \ge 0} (M_n + N)/N$ is really a direct sum, since $A \cap B = 0$ does not imply $(A+N) \cap (B+N) = N$ (consider three generic lines as a subspace of $\mathbb R^2$ for example).

Hope that helps,

  • A great example! Thank you. – user123454321 Feb 08 '14 at 16:19
  • But may I ask how the isomorphism $(M + N)/N \simeq M / (M \cap N)$ is from a universal property? I really don't see it. – user123454321 Feb 08 '14 at 17:46
  • @GYC : I didn't say it was universal, I said it was canonical. The isomorphism comes from the canonical surjection $M \to (M+N)/N$ whose kernel is $M \cap N$. Universal means that there is some underlying universal property ; canonical means that there is a uniform trick that produces the thing. In some sense the word canonical cannot be properly defined mathematically, but it only expresses the "pattern"-like behavior of things. – Patrick Da Silva Feb 08 '14 at 17:52
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    Right. Sorry if I made a confusion above, but what I meant by saying "two maps are canonically isomorphic" is that they have same categorical definition. This does not mean that your example does not fit as an answer to this question because my purpose of asking this question is really not to be fooled by isomorphisms nor to make gaps in various proofs because of that. – user123454321 Feb 09 '14 at 01:04
  • @GYC : There are probably other examples of natural isomorphisms where using the isomorphism may be a foolish idea to prove a statement. The idea is that the isomorphisms need to respect some other properties in order for them to do what you want them to do ; one must ensure that these properties are respected, and thus handling isomorphisms requires care in general. – Patrick Da Silva Feb 09 '14 at 03:50
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    I totally agree, and it's good to hear that I'm not just being too pedantic about this issue. Thanks. – user123454321 Feb 09 '14 at 07:13
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The subobjects of $A$ named by $k : K \to A$ and $\ker(f) \hookrightarrow A$ are indeed equal. However, I should note that a "subobject" is defined to be an isomorphism class of monic maps into $A$.

I should define what a morphism of "monic maps into $A$" is: if $g$ and $h$ are such things, then a morphism from $g$ to $h$ is a commutative diagram

$$ \begin{matrix} \bullet &\xrightarrow{g}& A \\ \downarrow & & || \\ \bullet & \xrightarrow{h} & A \end{matrix}$$

and composition of such morphisms amounts to composing the arrows on the left.


Another worthwhile point is how generalized elements work with subobjects. Recall that a generalized element of $A$ is interpreted as any morphism to $A$. A lot of the usual notions for elements make sense for generalized elements. e.g. if we have $f : A \to B$, and $x$ is a generalized element of $A$, then we can define the generlized element $f(x)$ to be $f \circ x$.

We can define a "membership" relation between generalized elements and subobjects: if $x$ is a generalized element of $A$, and $S$ is subobject of $A$, then $x \in S$ if and only if there is a commutative diagram

$$ \begin{matrix} \bullet &\xrightarrow{x}& A \\ \downarrow & & || \\ \bullet & \xrightarrow{s} & A \end{matrix}$$

where $s$ is any representative of the subobject $S$.

Note that if $x \in S$, then for any particular choice of $x$, the diagram above is uniquely determined, and each choice of $s$ gives an isomorphic diagram (where a morphism of such diagrams is defined in a suitable way), so the definition of $x \in S$ given is a reasonable one.

Note that in this language, given an arrow $f : A \to B$ between groups, there is a unique subobject $K$ of $A$ with the property that $x \in K$ if and only if $x \in A$ and $f(x) = 0$. (here, $0$ means the zero map with the same domain as $x$) So if we adjust to this categorical language, not only do we keep the simplicity of having a unique kernel, but we still retain the idea that there are many different monic arrows representing that kernel.

  • I like this answer a lot. Thanks. – user123454321 Feb 09 '14 at 07:28
  • Just curious, is there recommendable references other than Mac Lane for this discussion? – user123454321 Feb 09 '14 at 11:28
  • Anything on categorical logic would probably be a good place to go; I learned a fair bit from "Sheaves in Geometry and Logic" (MacLane and Moerdijk). I have seen generalized elements brought up a few times in introductions to Abelian categories, although not very extensively. –  Feb 10 '14 at 03:12
  • After some thoughts, I realized that this is a satisfactory answer for now to clear up my head. Thanks for the book recommendation! – user123454321 Feb 10 '14 at 13:27