If $A$ and $B$ Commute, $\exp((A+B)t)= \exp(At)\cdot\exp(Bt)$? is this statement true?
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see http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/449354/commuting-exponential-matrices?rq=1 – James S. Cook Feb 05 '14 at 05:05
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Do you mean exp(At+Bt)=exp(At)exp(Bt)? (If so, the t is unnecessary.) – anon Feb 05 '14 at 05:06
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2Yes, the statement is true. Note: as a matter of fact, this is true if and only if $A$ and $B$ commute. – Ben Grossmann Feb 05 '14 at 05:10
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@Omnomnomnom: Can you explain why the converse is true, i.e. why $\exp(t(A + B)) = \exp(tA)\exp(tB)$ for all $t \geq 0$ implies that $A$ and $B$ commute? – el_tenedor Oct 30 '16 at 12:39
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@Omnomnomnom: if so, i would appreciate a comment or answer to my post: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1991471/if-expta-b-expta-exptb-for-all-t-geq-0-then-a-b-commute – el_tenedor Oct 30 '16 at 12:58
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It is in fact the case. For a thorough explanation, please see my answer to this question. It's only a mouse click away!
Hope this helps. Cheerio,
and as always,
Fiat Lux!!!

Robert Lewis
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if $A\cdot B=B\cdot A$
then $e^{A+B}=e^{A}\cdot e^{B}$
now multiply both side by $t$
we have
$e^{At+Bt}$,
you can apply same rule for this too
there is question related to matrix expoenntial

dato datuashvili
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1No, I just think instead of saying "multiply both side[s] by $t$" (which would result in $e^{A+B}t=e^A*e^Bt$) you should say "multiply $A$ and $B$ by $t$." Although there is the issue that you are simply stating the desired conclusion without proof. – anon Feb 05 '14 at 05:11
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