Could someone tell me if this proof is correct?
Suppose there are finitely many primes: $p_1,p_2,\cdots,p_n$ primes. Let $m<n$. Then let $N=p_1p_2p_3\cdots p_m$ and $M=p_{m+1}\cdots p_{n-1}p_n$. Let $P=M+N$. First, $P$ cannot be prime or else we have a prime bigger than $p_n$. So $P$ is composite, hence there exists a $p_i$ such that $p_i \mid P$. But if $p_i\mid P$, then $p_i \mid M$ or $p_i \mid N$. So $p_i \not\mid P$. Hence the $P$ has a prime factor not on the list.
{Edit: updated to address the edited question with revised proof]
There are still problems with the argument. First, it is not easy to infer missing details in your proof because you seem to be mixing together a proof by contradiction with a direct proof. In a proof by contradiction one assumes that there are only finitely many primes then deduces a contradiction. In a direct proof one shows that the number of primes is not finite by proving that, given any finite set S of primes, there exists a prime not in S. Due to this mixing of methods, it is not clear what you mean when you write "But if $\,p_i\mid P,\,$ then $p_i \mid M$ or $p_i \mid N.\,$ So $\,p_i \not\mid P$."
Recommendation: use a direct proof, not one by contradiction. Proofs by contradiction of this are notoriously difficult for those without much practice in such methods (e.g. sci.math had many hundreds of incorrect attempts - perhaps more so than any other topic discussed there).
Hint $ $ Instead, try this: $\,M$ coprime to $N\Rightarrow M+N\,$ is coprime to $MN = p_1\cdots p_n.\,$ Therefore the prime factors of $\, M+N$ do not lie in $\{p_1,\ldots, p_m\}$
This is a slight generalization of Euclid's idea for generating new primes. Euclid employed $\,1 + p_1\cdots p_n\,$ is coprime to $\,c = p_1\cdots p_n.\,$ Stieltjes noted the generalization that, furthermore, $\ \color{#c00}{p_1\cdots p_k} +\, \color{#0a0}{p_{k+1}\cdots p_n}\,$ is coprime to $\,c\,$ too. Note that Euclid's method is the special case $k=0.\, $ Introspecting on the essence of Stieltjies idea leads to the following
Key Idea $\, $ Coprimes to $\,c\,$ arise by partitioning into $\rm\color{#c00}{two}\ \color{#0a0}{summands}$ all prime factors of $\,c,\,$ i.e.
Theorem $\,\ \ \color{#c00}a+\color{#0a0}b\ $ is coprime to $\ c\:$ if every prime factor of $\,c\,$ divides exactly one of $\,a\,$ or $\,b.$
Proof $\ $ If not then $\,a+b\,$ and $\,c\,$ have a common prime factor $\,p.\,$ By hypothesis $\,p\mid a\,$ or $\,p\mid b.\,$ Wlog, say $\,p\mid b.\,$ Then $\,p\mid (a+b)-b = a,\,$ so $\,p\,$ divides both $\,a,b,\,$ contra hypothesis. $ $ QED
Remark $\ $ This idea frequently proves useful, e.g. see this recent problem.
How about this: Suppose there are finitely many primes say $p_1,p_2,\dots,p_n$. Let $N=p_1p_2\cdots p_m$, $M=p_{m+1}\cdots p_{n-1}p_n$ and $P=M+N$, where $m<n$. Since any prime number divides exactly one of $N$ and $M$, so no prime divides $P$, i.e. $P=1$, a contradiction.
