My question is:
show $$\sum_{k=0}^{m} \binom{n-k}{m-k}=\binom{n+1}{m}$$ $$n\geq m\geq 1$$ I tried to do this via induction and failed. there has to be another way of doing this.
We could either explain combinatorically that we are counting the same thing in 2 different ways, in this sense, we are counting the number of ways to choose $m$ elements from a set with $n+1$ elements.
Or we could try like me to prove it algebraically, both ways are valid...I'd like some help, or a push in the right direction.
$\binom{n+1}{m}=\binom{n}{m}+\binom{n}{m-1}$
– derivative Jan 19 '14 at 20:04