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The title says it all. I'm aware of the proof of the converse of my statement, but how do I go on about proving this. Any help would be appreciated.

sayantankhan
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When dividing through n, you can only have n possible remainders, from $0$ to $n-1$, so either the division stops, when one of these remainders is $0$, or loops, when one of these non-zero remainders is equal to a previous non-zero remainder.

Lucian
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