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The following is an real analysis qualifying exam problem that I cannot solve:

Suppose $X$ is a Banach space and that $(x_n)$ converges weakly to $x$. Show that $\liminf ||x_n|| \geq ||x||$.

Using the Uniform Boundedness Principle I can show that $\sup_{n \in \mathbb{N}} ||x_n -x||$ is finite. Using Alaoglu's Theorem I can show that some subset of $(x_n)$ converges in norm to $x$. I feel like I am close with this but cannot seem to finish the problem.

1 Answers1

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Take $\phi \in X^{*}$ such that $\|\phi \|_{\text{op}}=1$ and $|\phi (x)|=\|x\| $ (this is a basic application of the Hahn-Banach theorem) then $\phi(x_n) \rightarrow \phi (x)$ so $|\phi (x_n)| \rightarrow |\phi (x)| =\|x\|$ \begin{align} \|x\|= |\phi (x)| &= \lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} |\phi (x_n) |\\ &\leq\liminf _{n \rightarrow \infty} |\phi (x_n) |\\ &\leq \liminf _{n \rightarrow \infty} (\|\phi\|_{\text{op}} \|x_n\| )\leq \liminf _{n \rightarrow \infty} \|x_n\| \end{align}

clark
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  • Jose, why did you write "$\leq$" for $\lim |\varphi (x_n)| \leq \lim \inf |\varphi (x_n) |$ instead of "$=$"? Just curious, perhaps I have the definition of limit inferior wrong? – Zduff May 08 '19 at 01:31
  • @Zduff Jose didn't change it, I had it with the inequality from the beginning. You're right it also works with $=$, I don't really remember why I chose the inequality sign instead. – clark May 08 '19 at 21:56
  • Cool, thanks for following up on the answer. It's been lingering in my head for a couple days now. Looked at the definition like 20 times haha. – Zduff May 10 '19 at 00:09