Somewhat inspired by this question about antiderivatives, I started to check whether or not that function had an elementary antiderivative. Then, after checking with Maxima, it struck me that, by simplifying the $\sec(x)$ and $\tan(x)$ terms using Taylor series, I could effectively solve the antiderivative of $\int {\sec\left(x\right)\tan\left(x\right) \over 3x + 5}\,{\rm d}x$.
Solving this, at origin 0 and with depth 8, I get the following expression.
$$ -\frac{9646207\,{x}^{9}}{1181250000}+\frac{9646207\,{x}^{8}}{630000000}-\frac{14069\,{x}^{7}}{875000}+\frac{14069\,{x}^{6}}{450000}-\frac{179\,{x}^{5}}{6250}+\frac{179\,{x}^{4}}{3000}-\frac{{x}^{3}}{25}+\frac{{x}^{2}}{10} $$
However, and back when I had Calculus, I never remembered using a Taylor series in order to solve an antiderivative.
Besides the resulting antiderivative being an approximation that degrades the further away the function is from the Taylor origin (as a Taylor series has a sort of implied error), what other faults or errors might happen should one use this technique?